Thursday, 23 July 2015

English Votes For English Laws

Yesterday's Government defeat in the Lords showed this is still a tricky area. But why should it be?

Why is this not automatic anyway in that all four countries in the UK can identify individual laws specific to one of the four countries and then be the only members to vote on it.

If this was not such a big issue I would have presumed that this was the norm, so I was surprised when this story started to gather pace last year during the Scottish referendum.

I realise that Scotland has a lesser parliament, but it is still a parliament and the Welsh and Irish have an assembly, however, they should still be able to be the only ones voting on their countries laws.

This whole point raises issues for me as I have said, if it was not mainstream news I would have assumed that it was happening anyway. Is the current system completely out of touch with every day business, or am I just naïve?

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